• hakase@lemmy.zip
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        0
        ·
        3 months ago

        No, but intonation is different between the two phrases, and as exemplified here: inTOnation is AN inteGRAL part OF lanGUAGE.

        “for the time BEing” vs. “for the TIME being”

        • fbn@slrpnk.net
          link
          fedilink
          English
          arrow-up
          0
          ·
          3 months ago

          a common thing people with autism and adhd is auditory processing issues, so it could work auditorily for them.

          i said it out loud in a few different ways and it sounded the same to me, but it could be a regional thing ¯\_(ツ)_/¯

          • hakase@lemmy.zip
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            0
            ·
            3 months ago

            It’s really interesting that they sound the same to you! I’d expect both to have merged to the “for the TIME being” stress pattern in that case - does that match your intuition?

        • Interesting, I process time being as a set idiomatic phrase rather than a modifier+ so there’s no need for emphasis on one part or the other. And time being as similar to human being wouldn’t get emphasis unless it was contrasting with a different kind of being. But I also think we’re muddying different types of stress, namely word stress vs prosodic stress. I think your reading has to do with the latter but your example is about the former.

          • hakase@lemmy.zip
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            0
            ·
            edit-2
            3 months ago

            This is a good point worth commenting further on.

            Idiomatic phrases usually (but not always) retain a stress pattern that corresponds to the prosody of their original syntax even after they lexicalize. See: “the CAT’s out of the BAG” vs. “the CLAM’S out of the POND” and “kick the BUCKet” vs. “beat the MONkey”.

            So, while I agree with you that “time being” (and probably all of “for the time being”, for that matter) is idiomatic, its prosody has fossilized from its original syntax in which “being” modified “time”.

            “LET’S put it aSIDE for the time BEing”
            “LET’S put it aSIDE for the man EATing”

            Also, even if the stress has neutralized from “time BEing” to just “time being” over time for some speakers (which is certainly possible), it would still contrast with “TIME being”.

          • hakase@lemmy.zip
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            0
            ·
            edit-2
            3 months ago

            My comment was based on fluent speech, not careful speech.

            I’m entertaining the idea that some of the commenters here may speak varieties (or even idiolects) where the two pronunciations have merged, but I think the more likely explanation is that they’re laypeople who (like many native English speakers) aren’t easily able to detect stress contrasts without at least some training.