I’m really confused, so please help me understand this. I’m not a native English speaker and to me it’s fairly easy, if you can’t replace it with “who is” or “who has” then it must be “whose”. So why is it so hard for a lot of native speakers to distinguish between the two?
I’m really confused, so please help me understand this. I’m not a native English speaker and to me it’s fairly easy, if you can’t replace it with “who is” or “who has” then it must be “whose”. So why is it so hard for a lot of native speakers to distinguish between the two?
When you learn to speak a language before you learn to write, homophones can be rough.
Plus, we usually use apostrophes to indicate possession, so the possessive “whose” can be confusing. See also: it’s/its.